UPSC Homoeopathy Medical Officer 2026 Exam held on 06 June 2026
- Recruitment for 4 Homoeopathic Physician posts
- 1–150 Memory-Based MCQs with Answers
- Useful for UPSC Homoeopathy & AIAPGET Preparation
- Includes Organon, Materia Medica, Repertory & Medical Subjects
- Expected Cut-Off & Answer Discussion
Check all questions and answers below
1. “Anaemia Mukt Bharat Programme” does NOT include
(a) Delayed cord clamping
(b) Testing and treatment of anaemia using digital methods and point of care treatment
(c) Addressing non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets, with special focus on malaria, fluorosis and haemoglobinopathies
(d) Mid-Day meal scheme
Answer: (d) Mid-Day meal scheme
2. The indicators used in calculating Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) are
(a) Life expectancy at birth, Infant Mortality and GNI per capita
(b) Life expectancy at age one, Mean years schooling, GNI per capita
(c) Literacy, Infant Mortality and Life expectancy at age one
(d) Life expectancy at birth, Infant Mortality and Literacy rate
Answer: (c) Literacy, Infant Mortality and Life expectancy at age one
3. If the random blood sugar levels of ten individuals was 90, 84, 77, 75, 95, 71, 79, 81, 75, 83, then which one among the following best represents the median of the data?
(a) 81
(b) 80
(c) 79
(d) 75
Answer: (c) 79
4. Which one of the following bacteria is an obligate anaerobe?
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Clostridium tetani
(c) Enterococcus faecalis
(d) Streptococcus pyogenes
Answer: (b) Clostridium tetani
5. Which of the following statements regarding Nephrotic syndrome are true?
Massive proteinuria > 3.5 gm/day
Hypoalbuminemia with plasma albumin levels < 2.5 gm/dL
Most commonly minimal change disease and membranous nephropathy are focal segmental glomerulosclerosis cause this
Patient passes smoky or cola coloured urine
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
6. Transpyloric plane passes through all the following structures EXCEPT
(a) Hilum of left kidney
(b) Origin of the superior mesenteric artery
(c) Body of the first lumbar vertebra near its lower border
(d) Meets costal margin at the tips of the 10th costal cartilages
Answer: (a) Hilum of left kidney
7. Posterior surface of head of pancreas is related to all of the following EXCEPT
(a) Inferior vena cava
(b) Terminal parts of renal veins
(c) Bile duct
(d) Left crus of the diaphragm
Answer: (d) Left crus of the diaphragm
8. Medial boundary of femoral ring is formed by
(a) Femoral vein
(b) Femoral artery
(c) Lacunar ligament
(d) Inguinal ligament
Answer: (c) Lacunar ligament
9. Gradual loss of hearing associated with aging that affects over one third individuals above 75 years of age and is probably due to gradual cumulative loss of hair cells and neurons is called
(a) Conductive deafness
(b) Nerve deafness
(c) Presbycusis
(d) Volley effect
Answer: (c) Presbycusis
10. The column of cells separated by venous sinuses in the adrenal cortex are called
(a) Zona glomerulosa
(b) Paraganglia
(c) Zona fasciculata
(d) Zona reticularis
Answer: (c) Zona fasciculata
11. Which one of the following is the precursor for the synthesis of fatty acids and cholesterol?
(a) Acetyl-CoA
(b) Glycogen
(c) Glycerol
(d) Ribose
Answer: (a) Acetyl-CoA
12. In female pelvis all of the following parameters are more than in male pelvis EXCEPT
(a) Obturator foramen
(b) Greater sciatic notch
(c) Subpubic angle
(d) Pelvic inlet and outlet
Answer: (a) Obturator foramen
13. Dye used for making green colored tattoo mark on skin is
(a) Indian ink
(b) Chromic acid
(c) Mercuric sulphide
(d) Ferric ferrocyanide
Answer: (d) Ferric ferrocyanide
14. Permanent impairment of the fingerprint pattern is caused by all of the following EXCEPT
(a) Leprosy
(b) Electric injury
(c) Eczema
(d) Exposure to radiation
Answer: (c) Eczema
15. Hippus is seen in poisoning with
(a) Digitalis
(b) Nicotiana tabacum
(c) Cerebra thevetia
(d) Aconite
Answer: (a) Digitalis
16. A 40 year old female presents with a purple coloured nodule in the nail bed of her left index finger measuring 4 mm in size. This is disproportionately painful in response to insignificant stimuli including exposure to cold. There is no history of trauma. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Neuroma
(b) Hematoma
(c) Glomus tumour
(d) Pyogenic granuloma
Answer: (c) Glomus tumour
17. A 35 year old male with a body weight of 75 kg is admitted with 30% burns. What will be the fluid requirement for resuscitation in the first 8 hours using Parkland formula?
(a) 9 Liters
(b) 4.5 Liters
(c) 5 Liters
(d) 10 Liters
Answer: (b) 4.5 Liters
18. A 40 year old female presents with a solitary thyroid nodule. Which one of the following should be employed as the primary investigation in evaluation of this patient?
(a) Thyroid function test
(b) Autoantibody titre
(c) Ultrasonography
(d) Fine needle aspiration cytology
Answer: (c) Ultrasonography
19. A 40 year old male is brought to the hospital with a chest injury. The examination findings are blood pressure 70/40 mm of Hg, distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds and a paradoxical pulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Tension pneumothorax
(b) Aortic dissection
(c) Pulmonary embolism
(d) Pericardial tamponade
Answer: (d) Pericardial tamponade
20. A 60 year old lady had undergone hip replacement surgery 5 days back. She now presents with pain and swelling of the left calf. There is calf tenderness, pitting edema of the ankle and dilated surface veins of left leg. Homan’s sign is positive. Which one of the following investigations is to be advised for confirming the diagnosis?
(a) MR venography
(b) CT angiography of lower limb
(c) Venous Duplex ultrasound
(d) Digital subtraction angiography
Answer: (c) Venous Duplex ultrasound
21. A 70 year old male presented with dysphagia, initially to solids with eventual progression to liquids. The patient has anorexia, weight loss, odynophagia and regurgitation symptoms. He has a history of cigarette smoking and chronic alcoholism. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
(a) Achalasia cardia
(b) Carcinoma of oesophagus
(c) Peptic stricture of oesophagus
(d) Pharyngeal pouch
Answer: (b) Carcinoma of oesophagus
22. Consider the following population composition:
% of population in 0–14 years age group = 26.1%
% of population in 15–64 years age group = 67.3%
% of population above 65 years age = 6.6%
What will be the total dependency ratio for the population composition given above?
(a) 32.7%
(b) 26.1%
(c) 48.6%
(d) 73.9%
Answer: (c) 48.6%
23. Chi-square test is used to calculate or to know all of the following EXCEPT
(a) The statistical significance of difference between two proportions
(b) Testing the null hypothesis in case of two categorical variables
(c) The statistical significance of association between two categorical variables
(d) The statistical significance of mean difference between two groups
Answer: (d) The statistical significance of mean difference between two groups
24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I (Disease)
A. Plague
B. Zika Virus Disease
C. Japanese Encephalitis
D. Leishmaniasis
List II (Vector)
Phlebotomine sand fly
Aedes aegypti
Xenopsylla cheopis
Culex mosquito
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 1 4 2 3
Answer: (a) 3 2 4 1
25. Which of the following statements regarding “epidemic curve” in a point source epidemic are correct?
- The curve rises gradually and then tails off gradually over extended period of time
- The epidemic curve rises and falls rapidly with no secondary waves
- There are multiple small peaks
- There is clustering of cases within a narrow interval of time
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 4
26. A six month old infant was brought to a health subcentre with complaints of fever, cough and cold. On examination, the breathing rate was 60 per minute and chest indrawing and stridor was found. Child was calm and feeding well. How will the child’s illness be classified as per IMNCI guidelines?
(a) Cough or cold
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Severe pneumonia
(d) Very severe disease
Answer: (c) Severe pneumonia
27. Which one of the following statements regarding Q fever is correct?
(a) The causative agent is Coxiella burnetii
(b) A highly infectious zoonotic disease caused by Lyssavirus type I
(c) The important vector is louse
(d) A group of cestode infections which are important zoonotic diseases
Answer: (a) The causative agent is Coxiella burnetii
28. 300 unvaccinated people were exposed to a case of chicken pox and 15 people developed chicken pox within 11 days. One among the following best represents the secondary attack rate?
(a) (15/285) × 100
(b) (15/299) × 100
(c) (15/300) × 100
(d) (16/284) × 100
Answer: (a) (15/285) × 100
29. Consider the
following table representing data of a case control study of smoking and
coronary artery disease:
|
Cases |
Controls |
Total |
|
|
Smokers |
44 |
55 |
99 |
|
Non-smokers |
2 |
30 |
32 |
|
Total |
46 |
85 |
131 |
What will be the Odds Ratio (Cross-product ratio)
based on the above table?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 9
(d) 8
Answer: (a) 12
30. Lime Probe Assay (LPA) is most commonly used for the diagnosis of which one of the following diseases?
(a) Mycobacterium leprae
(b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
(c) Salmonella typhi
(d) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Answer: (b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
31. DIPSI (Diabetes in Pregnancy Societies of India) recommends which one of the following tests for Gestational Diabetes Mellitus (GDM)?
(a) 50 gram oral glucose challenge test between 24–28 weeks of gestation
(b) 100 gram oral glucose challenge test between 24–28 weeks of gestation
(c) 100 grams oral glucose tolerance test without any regard to period of gestation
(d) 75 gram oral glucose test without regard to the time of the last meal
Answer: (d) 75 gram oral glucose test without regard to the time of the last meal
32. The time required to complete the process of spermatogenesis is approximately
(a) 74 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 32 days
(d) 28 days
Answer: (a) 74 days
33. A 25 year old nulliparous lady presents in a gynaecological OPD with third degree cervical descent. What would be the best management of choice for her?
(a) Vaginal hysterectomy
(b) Sling operation
(c) Fothergill’s repair
(d) Pessary
Answer: (b) Sling operation
34. The management of acute mastitis in a lactating woman does NOT include
(a) Manual emptying of the infected breast with each feed
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Continue breastfeeding from unaffected breast
(d) Incision and drainage
Answer: (d) Incision and drainage
35. The indications of using expressed breast milk are
- Cleft palate
- Maternal fever
- Working mother
- Premature baby
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4
36. Post placental IUCD is inserted in case of a vaginal delivery
(a) Within 10 minutes of placental expulsion
(b) Within 20 minutes of placental expulsion
(c) Within 30 minutes of placental expulsion
(d) Within 40 minutes of placental expulsion
Answer: (a) Within 10 minutes of placental expulsion
37. The most sensitive growth parameter to identify ‘failure to thrive’ in a child is
(a) Height
(b) Weight
(c) Head circumference
(d) Body mass index
Answer: (b) Weight
38. A low platelet count is seen in all of the following conditions EXCEPT
(a) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
(b) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
(c) Hemolytic uremic syndrome
(d) Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
Answer: (b) Henoch-Schönlein purpura
39. A one-year-old child is found to have low serum calcium, high serum phosphate and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase and parathyroid hormone levels when evaluated for seizures. His most likely diagnosis is
(a) Chronic kidney disease
(b) Nutritional rickets
(c) Hypoparathyroidism
(d) Celiac disease
Answer: (a) Chronic kidney disease
40. A five-year-old child is being evaluated for short stature. On radiography his bone age equals to the chronological age. The most likely diagnosis for this child is
(a) Familial short stature
(b) Constitutional growth delay
(c) Growth hormone deficiency
(d) Congenital hypothyroidism
Answer: (a) Familial short stature
41. A one-year-old boy presents with a history of recurrent infections. He has recently been diagnosed with atopic dermatitis and thrombocytopenia. His most likely diagnosis is
(a) Ataxia Telangiectasia
(b) Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
(c) Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
(d) X-linked agammaglobulinemia
Answer: (b) Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
42. The pathologies depicted in the diagrams a and b are
(a) a is sinus and b is ulcer
(b) a is fistula and b is sinus
(c) a is ulcer and b is fistula
(d) a is sinus and b is fistula
Answer: (d) a is sinus and b is fistula
43. Consider the following statements regarding chronic pancreatitis:
- Cassava ingestion is regarded as the etiological factor
- High incidence of pancreatic cancer in those affected by the disease
- Occurs exclusively in those who consume alcohol
- Serum amylase level is elevated during acute exacerbation
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
44. A 30 year old male is brought to the hospital with reduced consciousness. Then a history of head injury on the left side with transient loss of consciousness followed by lucid interval. Examination shows contralateral hemiparesis and ipsilateral pupillary dilation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Acute subdural hematoma
(b) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
(c) Extradural hematoma
(d) Chronic subdural hematoma
Answer: (c) Extradural hematoma
45. A 60 year old male presented with painless hematuria, pain in the flank and weight loss. He has a painter by profession and has history of tobacco smoking since 30 years of age. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
(a) Chronic cystitis
(b) Carcinoma of prostate
(c) Urethral stricture
(d) Carcinoma of urinary bladder
Answer: (d) Carcinoma of urinary bladder
46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I (Class)
A. Class-I
B. Class-II
C. Class-III
D. Class-IV
List II (Drug strength)
- 1/6
- 1/2
- 1/10
- 1/2
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
Answer: (d) 4 2 1 3
47. Which one of the following drugs does NOT belong to the family Cucurbitaceae?
(a) Bryonia Alba
(b) Chimaphila
(c) Colocynthis
(d) Elaterium
Answer: (b) Chimaphila
48. Which one of the following medicines is NOT prepared from whole living animal?
(a) Formica rufa
(b) Apis mellifica
(c) Coccus cacti
(d) Culex musca
Answer: (d) (d) Culex musca
49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I (Name of medicine)
A. Lac caninum
B. Lac felinum
C. Lac vaccinum
D. Lac defloratum
List II (Common name)
- Cow’s milk
- Dog’s milk
- Skimmed milk
- Cat’s milk
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2
Answer: (a) 2 4 1 3
50. Medicine prepared from the poison of Gila monster is
(a) Heloderma horridus
(b) Toxicophis
(c) Chelone
(d) Homarus
Answer: (a) Heloderma horridus
51. Which one of the following drugs belongs to bowel Nosodes?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Proteus
(c) Pancreatinum
(d) Cholesterinum
Answer: (b) Proteus
52. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I (Drug)
A. Dulcamara
B. Baptisia tinctoria
C. Bryonia
D. Rhus tox
List II (Part used)
- Bark of roots
- Leaves
- Whole plant
- Root
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2
Answer: (d) 3 1 4 2
53. Verbascum thapsus is used for the preparation of
(a) Oil of Buchu
(b) Oil of Wintergreen
(c) Oil of Mullein
(d) Oil of Rosemary
Answer: (c) Oil of Mullein
54. Porosity of globules is determined by
(a) Ash test
(b) Dunstan test
(c) Methylene blue test
(d) Borax bead test
Answer: (c) Methylene blue test
55. Homoeopathic attenuations of antigens are called
(a) Allersodes
(b) Isodes
(c) Nosodes
(d) Sarcodes
Answer: (a) Allersodes
56. Which one of the following classes is used to triturate Lyssin?
(a) Class VI-B
(b) Class VII
(c) Class VIII
(d) Class IX
Answer: (c) Class VIII
57. Which of the following are true for Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome?
- Normal breast development
- Karyotype 46, XY
- Normal external genitalia
- Normal uterus
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
58. Which one of the following statements regarding fetal well-being is NOT correct?
(a) Daily fetal movement count is simple reliable method of fetal wellbeing
(b) Mother perceive 88% of fetal movements
(c) Modified biophysical profile consists of NST and fetal breathing movements
(d) Healthy fetus should have 10 movements/12 hours
Answer: (c) Modified biophysical profile consists of NST and fetal breathing movements
59. Which of the following statements regarding TTTS (Twin-Twin Transfusion syndrome) are correct?
- It is exclusively met with dizygotic twins
- One twin appears to bleed into another twin
- Recipient twin becomes larger with hydramnios and hypertensive disease
- It leads to anemia-anemia syndrome
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
60. Which of the following maneuvers may be employed for the management of Shoulder dystocia?
- Lovset’s maneuver
- Pinard maneuver
- Wood’s maneuver
- McRobert’s maneuver
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 3 and 4
61. Which one of the following drugs is mentioned in the rubric “Activity, fruitless” in Kent’s repertory?
(a) Kali bromatum
(b) Lycopodium
(c) Stramonium
(d) Stannum metallicum
Answer: (c) Stramonium
62. Which one of the following rubric is absent in Kent’s repertory, but present in Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book?
(a) Darkness, agg.
(b) Coffee, amel.
(c) Darkness, amel.
(d) Tea, amel.
Answer: (d) Tea, amel.
63. The total number of drugs in the chapter of Concordances of Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory is
(a) 131
(b) 465
(c) 125
(d) 624
Answer: (c) 125
64. In which one of the following edition of Organon, Hahnemann used the term “Vital Principle” instead of “Vital Force”?
(a) Third edition
(b) Fourth edition
(c) Fifth edition
(d) Sixth edition
Answer: (d) Sixth edition
65. In footnote of which one of the following aphorism has Dr. Hahnemann discussed the scope of palliative treatment?
(a) 26
(b) 67
(c) 78
(d) 87
Answer: (b) 67
66. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I (Topic)
A. Modus operandi of Homoeopathic medicines
B. Idiosyncrasies
C. Mental diseases
D. Removal of totality of symptoms
List II (Aphorism)
- 17
- 210 to 230
- 29
- 116 to 117
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 1 4 2 3
Answer: (a) 3 4 2 1
67. In the preface to the Second Edition of the Organon, Dr. Hahnemann states “The object of cure (the disease) was manufactured to cure the disease by pathology”. His context in the statement is
(a) Pathological basis of disease for appropriate diagnosis
(b) Non pathological basis of disease for Homoeopathic diagnosis
(c) Cutting down of innumerable and unforeseeable variety in the range of diseases
(d) Analyzing pathology in incurable cases for palliative care
Answer: (c) Cutting down of innumerable and unforeseeable variety in the range of diseases
68. Reversal of the order of cure, symptoms are taking on a deeper form, although there may be actual amelioration of the more noticeable symptoms, is an indication of
(a) Patient feels better, but is growing weaker
(b) Patient does not feel better, but is gaining strength
(c) Patient shows complete deterioration
(d) Patient shows gradual repair
Answer: (a) Patient feels better, but is growing weaker
69. Consider the following statements regarding “Susceptibility”
- Power of assimilation and nutrition cannot be considered as phase of susceptibility
- Susceptibility varies in degree in different patients and at different times in the same patient
- Contagious diseases thrive in childhood because of extreme susceptibility of miasmatic influence
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
70. According to Homoeopathic Philosophy, which among the following is true about “the second best remedy” after an “indicated remedy” without which no good homoeopathist can long practice medicine?
(a) Camphor, as an antidote
(b) Complementary to the indicated remedy
(c) Follow well of the indicated remedy
(d) Saccharum lactis officinalis
Answer: (d) Saccharum lactis officinalis
71. Which of the following statement(s) regarding Homoeopathic Therapeutics is/are correct?
- In a homoeopathic treatment of disease a drug is never given for its pathogenic action
- A pathogenetic action is never curative
- The physiological action of a drug is not its therapeutic or curative action
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
72. General symptoms or generalizations, inferred or deduced from particular symptoms by the logical process of generalizing are called
(a) Mental general
(b) Pathological symptoms
(c) Characteristic symptoms
(d) Concomitants
Answer: (c) Characteristic symptoms
73. As per Aphorism 237, “if stage of pyrexia is very short, as happens in some very bad fevers” the dose of the homoeopathic medicine should be administered when
(a) Pyrexia is very high and associated with paroxysms
(b) During apyrexia without any paroxysmal symptoms
(c) During perspiration or other subsequent phenomena of expiring paroxysm begins to diminish
(d) Perspiration begins to abate or other subsequent phenomena of expiring paroxysm begins to diminish
Answer: (d) Perspiration begins to abate or other subsequent phenomena of expiring paroxysm begins to diminish
74. The Chronic miasm and/or chronic disease springing from a miasm which is most easily curable in its unchanged form and without being complicated by Psora is
(a) Sycosis
(b) Syphilis
(c) Tubercular
(d) Syco-Syphilis
Answer: (b) Syphilis
75. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I
A. Quid
B. Quando
C. Cui
D. Ubi
List II
- Cause of disease
- Nature and peculiarity of disease
- Seat of disease
- Time of appearance of aggravation or improvement of ailments
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Answer: (a) 2 4 1 3
76. The rubric “Cancer, noli me tangere on nose” is mentioned in which chapter of Kent’s repertory?
(a) Nose
(b) Face
(c) Mouth
(d) Generalities
Answer: (b) Face
77. The rubric “URINATION-dysuria” is mentioned in which chapter of Kent’s repertory?
(a) Kidneys
(b) Bladder
(c) Urethra
(d) Urine
Answer: (b) Bladder
78. The rubric “Child refuses mother’s milk” is mentioned in which chapter of Kent’s repertory?
(a) Chest
(b) Mind
(c) Abdomen
(d) Generalities
Answer: (a) Chest
79. Sinuses are mentioned in which chapter of the Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory?
(a) Head-Internal
(b) Nose
(c) Face
(d) Sensation and complaints in general
Answer: (d) Sensation and complaints in general
80. The rubric “Cheyne-Stokes respiration” is mentioned in which one of the following repertories?
(a) Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book
(b) Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory
(c) Repertory of the Homoeopathic Materia Medica by J.T. Kent
(d) Bell’s diarrhea
Answer: (b) Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory
81. Which one of the following medicines was seen by Vehle to Boenninghausen for treatment of his Tuberculosis?
(a) Lycopodium
(b) Medorrhinum
(c) Pulsatilla
(d) Rhus tox
Answer: (c) Pulsatilla
82. Which one of the following medicines was dropped in Allen’s edition of Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book?
(a) Angustura
(b) X-ray
(c) Bowel Nosodes
(d) Carcinosin
Answer: (a) Angustura
83. The Meaning of Quibus Auxiliis in the totality given by Boenninghausen is
(a) Cause of disease
(b) Seat of disease
(c) Accompanying symptoms
(d) Modification
Answer: (c) Accompanying symptoms
84. Which one of the following medicines is mentioned under the rubric “Respiration, Asthmatic, amelioration by expectoration” in Kent’s repertory?
(a) Carbo veg
(b) Kali carb
(c) Hypericum
(d) Pothos foetidus
Answer: (c) Hypericum
85. Match List I with List II in context to Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List I (Rubric)
A. Legumes, aggravation
B. Phlegmatic
C. Sun stroke and after effects
D. Infants, affection
List II (Chapter)
- Sensation and complaints in general
- Head-Internal
- Mind
- Aggravation and amelioration in general
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer: (d) 4 3 2 1
86. Which one of the following medicines is mentioned under the rubric “Aversion to uncovering during perspiration” in Kent’s repertory?
(a) Rhus tox
(b) Chamomilla
(c) Lycopodium
(d) Belladonna
Answer: (c) Lycopodium
87. Rubrics related to various occupations are mentioned in detailed manner in which one of the following repertories?
(a) Repertory of the Homoeopathic Materia Medica by J.T. Kent
(b) Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book
(c) Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory
(d) Repertory of Hering’s Guiding Symptoms of our Materia Medica
Answer: (c) Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory
88. Which one of the following remedies has been mentioned in Kent’s repertory against rubric “Abusive, pains with the”?
(a) Corallium rubrum
(b) Hyoscyamus
(c) Anacardium
(d) Belladonna
Answer: (a) Corallium rubrum
89. Which one of the following is the remedy for Plague in Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory?
(a) Medorrhinum
(b) Syphilinum
(c) Arsenic
(d) Camphora
Answer: (d) Camphora
90. Remedy for Abscess in spleen in the Kent’s repertory is
(a) Ceanothus
(b) Hippocastanum
(c) Silicea
(d) Hepar sulphur
Answer: (c) Silicea
91. The positive Finkelstein sign is found in
(a) Bicipital tendinitis
(b) De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
(c) Patellar tendinitis
(d) Adhesive capsulitis
Answer: (b) De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
92. Which of the following, besides absence of symptoms, indicates the diagnosis of latent syphilis?
- Negative serologic test
- Positive serologic test
- Normal CSF examination
- CSF mononuclear pleocytosis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
93. Consider the following statements regarding lead poisoning:
Statement-1: In blood, 95–99% of absorbed lead is sequestered in RBCs
Statement-2: Whole blood should be used for measuring lead levels
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) Both 1 and 2
94. Which of the following statements regarding diverticular disease are correct?
- Most diverticula found in colon are true diverticula
- Hypertension increases the risk of diverticular bleeding
- In Asian population, 70% of diverticula are seen in right colon and caecum
- Chronic low grade inflammation plays important role in development of dysmotility
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4
95. Pulsus paradoxus is seen in which of the following condition(s)?
- Aortic stenosis
- Pericardial tamponade
- Massive pulmonary embolism
- Aortic regurgitation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3
96. Which one of the following clinical descriptions is characteristic of atonic seizures?
(a) Sudden brief impaired consciousness without loss of postural control
(b) Marked enhancement of sympathetic tone leading to increased heart rate, blood pressure and pupillary size
(c) Sudden loss of postural muscle tone lasting 1–2 seconds with brief impairment of consciousness without postictal confusion
(d) Brief seizure with postictal confusion and diffuse suppression of all cerebral activity
Answer: (c) Sudden loss of postural muscle tone lasting 1–2 seconds with brief impairment of consciousness without postictal confusion
97. Content of the Richter’s hernia include
(a) Fat
(b) Peritoneum
(c) Omentum
(d) Part of bowel wall
Answer: (d) Part of bowel wall
98. A patient presented with generalized erythroderma with sharply demarcated islands of unaffected skin and waxy diffuse yellowish keratoderma of palms and soles. The most likely diagnosis is
(a) Ichthyosis
(b) Atopic dermatitis
(c) Pityriasis rubra pilaris
(d) Pityriasis rosea
Answer: (c) Pityriasis rubra pilaris
99. The CREST syndrome is associated with presence of
(a) Anti-mitochondrial antibody
(b) Anti-centromere antibody
(c) Anti-dsDNA antibody
(d) Anti-CCP antibody
Answer: (b) Anti-centromere antibody
100. Which one of the following ankle-brachial index (ABI) values is diagnostic of peripheral arterial diseases?
(a) 1.40 – 2.00
(b) 1.00 – 1.40
(c) 0.91 – 0.99
(d) < 0.90
Answer: (d) < 0.90
101. Consider the following statements regarding secondary hyperparathyroidism in chronic renal failure:
Statement-1: Hyperphosphatemia is a major cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism of renal failure
Statement-2: Hyperphosphatemia impairs renal synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D and stimulates parathyroid hormone secretion
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1
(c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
(d) Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
Answer: (a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1
102. The GOLD criteria for assessing severity of airflow obstruction in COPD is based on
- FEV₁/FVC ratio
- FEV₁ predicted
- FVC predicted
- FRC
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
103. In the jugular venous waveform, the presence of “cannon a wave” indicates
- Atrial fibrillation
- Mitral stenosis
- Atrio-ventricular dissociation
- Mitral regurgitation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
Answer: (d) 3 only
104. Thyroid Hormone Resistance is
- Autosomal dominant disorder
- Characterized by elevated thyroid hormone levels
- Inappropriately normal or elevated TSH
- Increased parathormone levels
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
105. Which one of the following is NOT a cause of acneiform eruptions?
(a) Acne vulgaris
(b) Acne rosacea
(c) Behcet’s disease
(d) Lichen planus
Answer: (d) Lichen planus
106. Macules evolving into papules, then vesicles on an erythematous base; then pustules and finally crusting. Lesions appear in crops and are typically described as dew drops on a rose petal are characteristic features of
(a) Parvovirus B19 infection
(b) Epstein Barr virus infection
(c) Varicella-zoster virus infection
(d) Zika virus infection
Answer: (c) Varicella-zoster virus infection
107. Which of the following statements regarding Renal Cell Carcinoma (RCC) are correct?
- Erythrocytosis is noted at presentation in >90% of cases
- Most common histologic type of RCC is clear cell carcinoma
- Loss of chromosome 3p is uniformly seen
- Presenting features may include hematuria, flank pain and a palpable abdominal mass
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 2,3 and 4
(d)1,2 and 4
Answer: (c) 2,3 and 4
108. The characteristic features of thromboangiitis obliterans include
- Claudication of the affected extremity
- Aortic aneurysm
- Raynaud’s phenomenon
- Migratory superficial vein thrombophlebitis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4
109. Bronchiectasis resulting from infection with nontuberculous mycobacteria most preferentially affects
(a) Upper lung fields
(b) Middle fields
(c) Lower lung fields
(d) Infero-posterior lung fields
Answer: (b) Middle fields
110. Type II respiratory failure occurs in which one of the following settings?
(a) Sepsis
(b) Pneumonia
(c) Gastric aspiration
(d) Drug overdose
Answer: (d) Drug overdose
111. Which of the following are features of lupus nephritis with Class IV renal disease?
- High anti-DNA antibody titres
- High serum complement level
- RBC casts
- Hematuria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4
112. Which of the following statements regarding Type A chronic gastritis are correct?
- Presence of antibodies against parietal cells
- Markedly high pepsinogen levels
- Higher incidence of HLA-B8 & HLA-DR3
- It primarily involves gastric antrum
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 3
113. Which of the following statements regarding mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) diseases are correct?
- mtDNA diseases affect both sexes
- Evidence of paternal transmission can almost certainly exclude an mtDNA disorder
- Phenotypic expression of mtDNA disease show lack of heterogeneity
- Mutation events represent the only source of mtDNA genetic diversity
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4
114. The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is
(a) Pituitary corticotrope adenoma
(b) Ectopic secretion of ACTH by non-pituitary tumor
(c) Adrenocortical adenoma
(d) Iatrogenic
Answer: (d) Iatrogenic
115. Which of the following are the early manifestations of Alzheimer’s disease?
- Logopenic aphasia
- Mild cognitive impairment
- Delusions
- Night-time wandering
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (a) 1 and 2
116. Which of the following statements regarding diabetes mellitus are correct?
- Glucose intolerance developing in first trimester of pregnancy is classified as gestational diabetes mellitus
- Children born to mother with gestational diabetes mellitus have an increased risk of developing metabolic syndrome later in life
- The maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY) is characterized by autosomal dominant inheritance
- Type 1 diabetes mellitus develops due to autoimmunity against insulin-producing beta cells
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (c) 2, 3 and 4
117. The karyotype 45X is characteristic of
(a) Klinefelter syndrome
(b) Swyer’s syndrome
(c) Reifenstein’s syndrome
(d) Turner syndrome
Answer: (d) Turner syndrome
118. The most prevalent type of familial amyloidosis is due to accumulation of
(a) Monoclonal immunoglobulin light chains
(b) Serum amyloid A protein
(c) Mutated Transthyretin
(d) Apolipoprotein A-I
Answer: (c) Mutated Transthyretin
119. Which of the following are characteristics of Fanconi’s anemia?
- Progressive pancytopenia
- Café au lait spots
- Anomalies involving genitourinary tract
- Tall stature
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
120. Presence of small scarred kidneys with papillary calcifications in a garland pattern in a non-contrast computed tomography scan is a feature of
(a) Reflux nephropathy
(b) Allergic interstitial nephritis
(c) Analgesic nephropathy
(d) Tubulointerstitial nephritis with uveitis
Answer: (c) Analgesic nephropathy
120. Presence of small scarred kidneys with papillary calcifications in a garland pattern in a non-contrast computed tomography scan is a feature of
(a) Reflux nephropathy
(b) Allergic interstitial nephritis
(c) Analgesic nephropathy
(d) Tubulointerstitial nephritis with uveitis
Answer: (a) Reflux nephropathy
121. “Convulsions after loss of sleep; of anger and grief” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Coffea
(b) Menyanthes
(c) Lac caninum
(d) Cocculus indicus
Answer: (c) Lac caninum
122. “Angina pectoris with pain in right arm” is a symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Cactus grandiflorus
(b) Rhus toxicodendron
(c) Lilium tigrinum
(d) Glonoine
Answer: (b) Rhus toxicodendron
123. “Every spring, skin affections re-appear” is a symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Clematis
(b) Graphites
(c) Natrum sulphuricum
(d) Fluoricum acidum
Answer: (c) Natrum sulphuricum
124. “Sweat as soon as one sleeps, or even when closing eyes” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Sambucus
(b) Kali bromatum
(c) Sepia
(d) Conium
Answer: (a) Sambucus
125. “Arterio-sclerosis where a high systolic pressure with a comparatively low diastolic tension is attended by cerebral and cardiac symptoms” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Glonoine
(b) Baryta muriatica
(c) Belladonna
(d) Rauwolfia serpentina
Answer: (a) Glonoine
126. “White mucus like small pieces of popped corn, preceded by pinching colic” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Chamomilla
(b) Aloe socotrina
(c) Magnesia carbonica
(d) Cina
Answer: (d) Cina
127. “Thyroid glands swollen even with chin; with suffocative paroxysms at night, Goitre” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Spongia tosta
(b) Natrum muriaticum
(c) Thyroidinum
(d) Elaps corallinus
Answer: (a) Spongia tosta
128. “Diarrhoea: Painless; not debilitating; involuntary or yellow, watery; from acids, intemperance, with flatus” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Phosphoricum acidum
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Rheum
(d) Pulsatilla
Answer: (b) Phosphorus
129. “Violent, furious, exhausting cough, with much mucus; profuse, salty, slimy expectoration and with involuntary spurting of urine and sneezing. Child rubs face with fist during cough” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Squilla maritima
(b) Mephitis
(c) Spongia tosta
(d) Allium cepa
Answer: (b) Mephitis
130. “Angina pains extend to nape of neck, left shoulder and arm with anxiety and fear of death” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Spigelia
(b) Kalmia
(c) Naja tripudians
(d) Crataegus
Answer: (c) Naja tripudians
131. “Brushing teeth causes cough” is a symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Coccus cacti
(b) Spongia
(c) Staphysagria
(d) Lobelia inflata
Answer: (d) Lobelia inflata
132. “Homesickness, with sleeplessness and disposition to suicide. Delirium tremens” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Opium
(b) Coffea
(c) Gelsemium
(d) Capsicum
Answer: (d) Capsicum
133. “Cough dry, hard, followed by haemoptysis; worse in morning and at night. Constant and severe pain in chest. Blood bright red and not profuse in morning; dark and clotted in afternoon” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Ipecacuanha
(c) China
(d) Acalypha indica
Answer: (d) Acalypha indica
134. “Teeth decay at the roots, crowns remain sound” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Thuja
(b) Staphysagria
(c) Coffea
(d) Mercurius
Answer: (a) Thuja
135. “Diarrhoea; Stool involuntary while urinating; on passing wind; cannot move without having the bowels move at the same time” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Arsenicum album
(b) Baryta carbonica
(c) Muriatic acid
(d) Zincum metallicum
Answer: (c) Muriatic acid
136. “Desire for very hot drinks, unless almost boiling, stomach will not retain them” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Bryonia alba
(c) Chelidonium majus
(d) Pulsatilla
Answer: (a) Phosphorus
137. “Knobe-seed” is a common name of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Cucurbita pepo
(b) Strophanthus hispidus
(c) Brassica napus
(d) Cina
Answer: (b) Strophanthus hispidus
138. “Itching of thighs and hollow of knees. Retrocession of eruption” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Zincum metallicum
(b) Psorinum
(c) Selenium
(d) Sepia
Answer: (d) Sepia
139. “Fear of rain” is a symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Elaps corallinus
(b) Spigelia
(c) Silicea
(d) Hyoscyamus
Answer: (c) Silicea
140. “Anguish; he sits, then walks, then lies, never long in one place” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Bismuthum
(b) Borax veneta
(c) Digitalis
(d) Ferrum metallicum
Answer: (c) Digitalis
141. “Raw feeling. Impeded respiration. Dry cough following diarrhoea” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Bromium
(b) Antimonium tartaricum
(c) Abrotanum
(d) Nux moschata
Answer: (a) Bromium
142. “While dressing in the morning has to sit down several times to rest” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Stannum metallicum
(b) Helonias
(c) Rhus toxicodendron
(d) Helleborus
Answer: (a) Stannum metallicum
143. “Cough aggravated by warmth, drinking, singing, laughing, weeping and from lying down, after midnight” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Ammonium muriaticum
(b) Rumex crispus
(c) Stannum metallicum
(d) Drosera rotundifolia
Answer: (c) Stannum metallicum
144. “Toothache; unbearable when food touches the teeth” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Magnesium muriaticum
(b) Ignatia
(c) Hyoscyamus
(d) Arsenicum album
Answer: (a) Magnesium muriaticum
145. “Neuralgia every day at same hour” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Kali bichromicum
(b) Ignatia
(c) Rhus toxicodendron
(d) Ipecacuanha
Answer: (a) Kali bichromicum
146. “Hard goitre cured after Iodium failed” is a symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Bromium
(b) Conium
(c) Borax
(d) Bryonia alba
Answer: (d) Bryonia alba
147. “Tremulous weakness after every stool” is a symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Hydrastis
(b) Colchicum autumnale
(c) Conium
(d) Nux moschata
Answer: (b) Colchicum autumnale
148. “Pain darting up the rectum every time he sneezes or coughs” is a symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Nux vomica
(b) Lachesis
(c) Ignatia
(d) Lycopodium
Answer: (d) Lycopodium
149. “Constant desire to defecate, from pressure in rectum, worse standing. Dysentery; especially in plethoric and nervous women at change of life” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Lilium tigrinum
(b) Cannabis indica
(c) Lachesis
(d) Natrum muriaticum
Answer: (c) Lachesis
150. “The presence of others, even the nurse, is unbearable during stool; frequent, ineffectual desire, which makes her anxious” is the symptom of which one of the following drugs?
(a) Nux vomica
(b) Sanicula
(c) Ambra grisea
(d) Pulsatilla
Answer: (c) Ambra grisea